HIV: ABFM practice questions

8 board-style questions on hiv in the PulseMD family medicine question bank, written against current guidelines with the reference cited on each question. Two free samples below; the full set with answers, explanations, and spaced review is free to start.

Sample question 1

A 45-year-old man with well-controlled HIV on antiretroviral therapy (ART) presents for cardiovascular risk assessment. His viral load is undetectable, and CD4 count is 620 cells/mcL. He has no other traditional cardiovascular risk factors. His 10-year ASCVD risk score is 5.2%. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding his cardiovascular risk?

1. HIV is considered an ASCVD risk-enhancing factor, and his true cardiovascular risk is likely higher than what the pooled cohort equation estimates
2. Statin therapy should not be initiated because his 10-year ASCVD risk is below 7.5%
3. His cardiovascular risk is equivalent to an age-matched HIV-negative man since his viral load is undetectable
4. His ASCVD risk score accurately reflects his true cardiovascular risk

Sample question 2

A 35-year-old man presents for a new patient visit. He is in a monogamous heterosexual relationship and reports no history of injection drug use, blood transfusions, or known HIV exposures. He has never been tested for HIV. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation regarding HIV screening?

1. Screen only if he requests testing or develops symptoms suggestive of HIV
2. HIV testing is not indicated since he has no identifiable risk factors
3. Defer HIV testing until age 45 when cardiovascular screening also begins
4. Offer one-time HIV screening as part of routine care

Create a free PulseMD account to answer these, see the explanations, and practice five minutes a day.

PulseMD is an independent educational resource and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, sponsored by, or approved by the American Board of Family Medicine.