4 board-style questions on endometriosis in the PulseMD family medicine question bank — physician-reviewed, written against current guidelines with the reference cited on each question. Two free samples below; the full set with answers, explanations, and spaced review is free to start.
A 34-year-old woman with laparoscopically confirmed Stage III endometriosis presents for follow-up. She completed a 6-month course of GnRH agonist therapy with norethindrone add-back, which improved her pain significantly. She has been off therapy for 4 months, and her dysmenorrhea and deep dyspareunia have returned to pre-treatment severity. She does not desire pregnancy at this time but wants to preserve fertility for the future. MRI shows a 4-cm left ovarian endometrioma and deep infiltrating endometriosis of the rectovaginal septum. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 33-year-old woman presents with chronic pelvic pain lasting 8 months. The pain is dull, constant, and worsens premenstrually. She has dyspareunia and painful bowel movements during menses. Pelvic examination reveals tenderness in the posterior cul-de-sac with uterosacral nodularity. A urine pregnancy test is negative and urinalysis is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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